Preference "of" versus preference "to"

Started by Mazen · started 2022-07-26 16:00 · last activity 2022-07-28 02:35 · 2 replies

Hi, Had the question stem substituted the word "of" for the word "to", i.e. "According to the fourth paragraph of the passage, what specifically does Bentham characterize as preference [TO] ignorance of knowledge," it would've, as the result of this word substitution ("to" for "of") been asking for what Bentham would like to establish as a rule of evidence: " the non-exclusion principle," or specifically allowing the jury the determine the character of the otherwise would've been excluded evidence. Correct? Thank You Mazen

Replies

  1. Emil-Kunkin · 2022-07-27 21:27

    Hi Mazen, I dont think that "preference to ignorance" is a valid grammatical statement, or at very least not one that one would expect to see in [American] English. Wo could say "I prefer x to y" or "I have a preference for X over Y' but I dont think that we could say "I have a preference to X over Y." The question stem is directly asking us what Bentham was talking about in line 39.
  2. Mazen · 2022-07-28 02:35

    Duly noted! Thank You Emil Mazen

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