Why is it not mild disapproval?

Started by jingjingxiao11111@gmail.com · started 2020-08-14 19:23 · last activity 2022-02-08 20:19 · 9 replies

Why is it not mild disapproval? Thanks

Replies

  1. kearann · 2020-08-17 19:58

    I would also like clarification on why this would not be considered mild disapproval.
  2. Vennela-Vellanki · 2020-10-19 14:23

    ^^^
  3. salty177 · 2021-02-03 18:53

    Yes please^^
  4. iggy.salas · 2021-02-18 18:12

    this!
  5. phyeamang · 2021-03-13 19:28

    ^^^^
  6. Nativeguy · 2021-10-07 21:16

    ^^^^^
  7. NULL · 2022-01-07 21:07

    After reading the answer explanation, it seems that her considering Weiner's view to be "boilerplate technological determinism" is what makes her stance more than just a disapproval. I was tricked as well by thinking that the preceding concession of Ginsburg was what made it mild. From what I understand of the answer explanation however, it seems that in mentioning technological determinism, the author was essentially claiming Ginsburg viewed Weiner's theory to be stereotypical/racist. Hopefully this helps. Or, if I'm wrong someone could please correct me!
  8. Ravi · 2022-02-08 20:18

    The issue with C, mild disapproval, is that Ginsburg's disapproval of Weiner's position is much stronger than "mild disapproval." If you go to lines 37-43, she thinks that he is totally wrong and that his position betrays a nostalgia for the outdated, racist idea of the noble savage. These are pretty combative thoughts and not something that fits into "mild disapproval." Thus, C does not reflect Ginsburg's stance, so we can get rid of it.
  9. Ravi · 2022-02-08 20:19

    The previous comment (username not shown) is on the money. Boilerplate technological determinism is a harsh critique.

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