Why not D?

The second speaker states "when the government sets clear standards pertaining to product labeling, we will certainly comply with them." The speaker admits that they will comply with the government's standards because they have to. How is that not consistent with Answer D which says that "the government standards should always take precedence."? I understand that the government standards are not in existence at this point in time, but the speaker acknowledges that (if and when such standards existed) they would "outrank" common standards for truthful labeling.