Why is Few Aren't a Most Statement

Hi Avif, thanks for the reaching out. I think your understanding is correct. If few do not, then most do! If few do, then most do not. I hope this helps. Please let me know if you'd like to me to clarify further.

The problem is that I couldn't find the answer based on that logic. In the explanation to the question it says that phrase is considered a some phrase. In the answer choices there were either two most statements answer b or two some statements answer c. This is what got me confused.

I think that there's a lot of disagreement between the teachers on this one. Using pure English-based understanding, I also interpreted it to mean that most do not. I thought that "few cowards fail to be fools" meant that "most cowards are fools" In the earlier threads, it seems to be interpreted as meaning "some," and in the later threads (and the written explanations), it is taught as being "most" It definitely seems a little easier to solve with a "some" interpretation, though. It's definitely a little confusing!

Hi, can a Lsatmax instructor weigh in on this? I also thought "few cowards fail to be fools" would be C-m-F (most cowards are fools). Thanks!